Certainly. Based on the provided legal document, here are the key points summarized:

• A marriage that is void under the law is considered non-existent from the outset and can be declared as such by a civil court without the need for a declaration during the lifetime of either spouse (!) (!) .
• The distinction between void and voidable marriages is significant: void marriages are null and have no legal effect, whereas voidable marriages are valid until annulled by a court (!) (!) .
• Marriages in contravention of the conditions specified in the relevant law are deemed void, and such marriages do not confer the status of husband and wife (!) (!) .
• The authority to declare a marriage void generally lies with the court designated by law, and such declarations are based on specific statutory provisions (!) (!) .
• Custom, as a rule recognized by law, must be ancient, certain, reasonable, and not opposed to public policy to be valid and enforceable (!) (!) .
• Oral evidence can be admissible even when documentary evidence is required, but the scope of admissibility may be influenced by provisions of the Evidence Act (!) (!) .
• The cause of action for a suit for declaration accrues at the time when the right to sue arises, and courts can declare parties invalid without necessarily framing specific issues on the invalidity (!) (!) (!) .
• The jurisdiction of civil courts to entertain suits challenging the validity of marriages, including those deemed void, is recognized, and such suits can be initiated even after the death of the spouses involved (!) (!) .
• The court emphasized that questions related to the validity of a marriage, including its legality and the recognition of custom, are primarily questions of law and can be adjudicated by courts accordingly (!) (!) (!) .

Please let me know if you need further elaboration or assistance with specific legal interpretations.